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Maintaining Certification in Internal Medicine


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QUESTIONS

  1. A 73-year-old black woman presents to your office complaining of dysphagia and a 20-lb weight loss during the preceding 6 months. She has a 40 pack/year smoking history, drinks 1 shot of bourbon daily, and has had a longstanding history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) but has not complied with proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. She is obese and has tried to lose weight in the past, but her current weight loss is unintentional. Upon review of her chart, you discover that she also has a history of achalasia. You suspect that she may have esophageal cancer. In addition to her cigarette smoking and alcohol use, which of her risk factors suggests that she has a squamous-cell carcinoma rather than an adenocarcinoma?

    1. Obesity
    2. GERD symptoms
    3. Noncompliance with PPI therapy
    4. History of achalasia
    5. Older age
  2. A 70-year-old man presented with itching and flaking of his skin (Figure 1 below). Which of the following statements is not true?

    Figure 1
    Figure 1

    1. The diagnosis is seborrheic dermatitis
    2. The optimal treatment is a potent topical steroid
    3. Associated systemic conditions to consider are Parkinson's disease and HIV/AIDS
    4. Topical ketoconazole or ciclopirox are appropriate treatments for this condition
  3. Which of the following values increases as the prevalence of a disease declines in a population?

    1. Positive predictive value of a test
    2. Negative predictive value of a test
    3. Specificity
    4. Sensitivity
    5. None of the above
  4. A 56-year-old man fell off the ramp of a truck he was unloading and hit the back of his head on the ground. His coworker noticed some muscle twitching right after the man fell. He remained unresponsive for about 1 minute and vomited twice upon awakening. Physical examination in the emergency department shows he is awake and fully oriented and only complains of a headache. His scalp has a small laceration and contusion at the site of impact. The neurologic examination is normal. The patient is otherwise healthy and does not take any medication. What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

    1. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast
    2. Plain x-rays of head to rule out fracture, and admit for 24-hour observation
    3. Discharge home and recommend rest for 48 hours
    4. No imaging studies, but admit for 24-hour observation
  5. A 33-year-old, otherwise healthy woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of a cough productive of thick, yellow sputum for the past 3 days. She had rhinorrhea with clear discharge, a sore throat, myalgias, and mild headaches for 2 to 3 days before the onset of cough. Her 2 children, ages 5 and 8 years, have had similar symptoms during the past week. The cough is worse when she is active, and it interrupts her sleep at night. She has not had fevers, chills, sinus drainage, or chest pain. Physical examination shows her vital signs are normal, and findings are unremarkable, with the exception of a few scattered wheezes at the bases of both lungs and her coughing several times during the examination that produced thick, yellow sputum. She has tried some over-the-counter cold medications, with only minimal relief. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

    1. Antibiotic treatment with a quinolone
    2. Order a chest x-ray
    3. Treatment with a beta2-agonist inhaler and an antitussive for symptom control
    4. Send sputum sample for culture and Gram's stain
  6. What are the most likely twin diagnoses for this patient (Figure 2)?

    Figure 2
    Figure 2

    1. Osteoarthritis and eczema
    2. Rheumatoid arthritis and eczema
    3. Rheumatoid arthritis and rheumatoid nodules
    4. Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis

» Read the answers



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